First, Kants definition is revisionist because he excludes from moral habit-formation what Aristotle includes, th at is, (i) practice in prudential calculation of a mean, and (ii) habit-formation by repetition. This follows from Kants insistence that an act is virtuous only if the moral ingredient is willing freely and universally. Secondly, Aristotles virtues transform sort directly, whereas Kants virtues modify behavior indirectly by creati...If you want to get a in full essay, order it on our website: OrderEssay.net
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